How on earth is money factor x2400 equivalent to an APR?
I'm just trying to wrap my head around this... everywhere you look, it says to calculate lease APR, you multiply Money Factor by 2400. Ok... so if a money factor is 0.002, that's supposedly 4.8%. That means if you lease a car that depreciates 5,000 over 36 months, a typical loan with 4.8% APR you would end up paying $5,378 over the life of the loan, of which $378 in interest. But a lease with a 0.002 Money Factor results in a whopping $3,500 interest ("rent charge"), which is nearly 40% APR. How does this make any sense? Just mind boggling...
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The bank buys the car, then rents it to you. Just like a loan, you are “borrowing” the full purchase price.
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You borrow the full price of the vehicle, and pay the "loan" down at a rate that causes the "loan balance" to equal the residual amount, at the end of the lease term.
Also, the finance charges are applied to an average of the CAP cost and the residual, so even though the finance charges are paid evenly throughout the life of the lease, you aren't paying finance charges on the full CAP cost for the term.
MF X 2400 is a rough approximation of the APR, but it's still pretty close.
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Thanks again.
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